MCQ
A-------→
1. The IETF standards documents are called ________
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
3. The structure or format of data is called ___________
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
5. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
6. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
9. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
Basics – 2
1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called _________
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) mail system
2. Two devices are in network if __________
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) a process is active and another is inactive
3. Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
4. In computer network nodes are _________
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
5. Communication channel is shared by all the
machines on the network in ________
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) anycast network
6. Bluetooth is an example of __________
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) wide area network
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) hub
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called ________
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) protocol system
9. Network congestion occurs _________
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) in case of transfer failure
10. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
Access Networks
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel
2. DSL telcos provide which of the following services?
a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) Wired phone access and ISP
d) Network routing and ISP
3. The function of DSLAM is to __________
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
4. Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
5. HFC contains _______
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) Twisted Pair Cable
6. Which of the following statements is not applicable for cable internet access?
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is __________
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) MON
8. StarBand provides __________
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
9. Home Access is provided by __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
10. ONT is connected to splitter using _________
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) Twisted pair cable
11. Which of the following factors affect transmission rate in DSL?
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) The gauge of the twisted-pair line and degree of electrical interference
Reference Models – 1
1. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
3. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model?
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer
4. Application layer is implemented in ____________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
5. Transport layer is implemented in ______________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Signal transmission
6. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __________
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is _________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is ____________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Randomized
11. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d) It is an application specific network model
Reference Models – 2”.
1. OSI stands for __________
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) network layer
4. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers?
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
5. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) with no link to
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network model?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
8. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
10. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
Physical Layer
1. The physical layer is concerned with ___________
a) bit-by-bit delivery
p) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
d) port to port delivery
2. Which transmission media provides the highest transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
3. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as analog signal by ___________
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called ___________
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) physical transport sublayer
5. The physical layer provides __________
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides ___________
a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
d) only start signalling
7. The physical layer is responsible for __________
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by ____________
a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) phase modulation
10. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via ___________
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) all of the mentioned
Data Link Layer
1. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
2. Which of the following tasks is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer
4. Header of a frame generally contains ______________
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by ________
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) application access control sublayer
6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called ____________
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) double error
7. CRC stands for __________
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
8. Which of the following is a data link protocol?
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) hdlc
d) all of the mentioned
9. Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) HDLC
10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called ____________
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) parity check
Network Layer
1. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control
3. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________
a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
5. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) special tree
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol
9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol
10. ICMP is primarily used for __________
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing
Transport Layer
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ____________
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
2. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP
b) UDP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP
d) HTTP and FTP
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) it sends data very quickly
4. Transmission control protocol ___________
a) is a connection-oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called __________
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) machine
6. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) sockwi
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) user congestion control protocol
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) protocol
9. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) man to man communication
10. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
Topology
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________
a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control
2. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
3. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
4. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
5. Data communication system within a building or campus is________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
6. WAN stands for __________
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) Web access network
7. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
8. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) PDM
Multiplexing
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Micropleixng
d) Duplexing
2. Multiplexing is used in _______
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
3. Which multiplexing technique used to transmit digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate, then the TDM link has _______ slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) 32bps
6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) Stop period
7. Multiplexing provides _________
a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of a multiplexed path is always _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
Delays and Loss
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to another?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is ____________ (in microseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) 320
3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet is part of __________
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Propagation delay
4. Given L = number of bits in the packet, a = average rate and R = transmission rate. The Traffic intensity in the network is given by ____________
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) Ra/L
5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually ___________
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested network. The number of routers between source and destination is?
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
7. The total nodal delay is given by ____________
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be zero?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
9. Transmission delay does not depend on _____________
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) Bandwidth of medium
10. Propagation delay depends on ___________
a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) Speed of the CPU
Network Attacks
1. The attacker using a network of compromised devices is known as _____________
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
3. The DoS attack, in which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at the target host is ________
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) UDP flooding
4. The DoS attack, in which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host is ________
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) UDP flooding
5. Packet sniffers involve ____________
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Legal receiver
d) Partially-active receiver
6. Sniffers can be prevented by using _______________
a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) Switched network
7. Firewalls are often configured to block ___________
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Sensitive traffic
d) Best-effort traffic
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be zero?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
Physical Media
1. Which of this is not a guided media?
a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
2. UTP is commonly used in __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Fiber optics posses following properties __________
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in Mbps) __________
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) None of the mentioned
6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
7. Radio channels are attractive medium because __________
a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
d) All of the mentioned
8. Geostationary satellites ___________
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
Packet Switching & Circuit Switching
1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched
2. Most packet switches use this principle ____________
a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Store and wait
d) Stop and forward
3. If there are N routers from source to destination, the total end to end delay in sending packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate) is equal to ______________
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
4. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching and Line switching
b) Circuit switching and Line switching
c) Line switching and bit switching
d) Packet switching and Circuit switching
5. The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of the session between end systems in ________ method.
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
6. As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, ___________ is achieved.
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
7. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
8. Which of the following is not an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) Error control
Application Layer – 1
1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned
5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
7. Pick the odd one out.
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________
a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?
a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
Application Layer – 2
1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
8. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
HTTP
1.The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
11. Which of the following is not correct?
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
12. The conditional GET mechanism
a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d) None of the mentioned
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
d) None of the mentioned
HTTP & FTP
1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) union resource locator
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) border gateway protocol
d) domain host control protocol
5. In HTTP pipelining ________________
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
FTP
1. Expansion of FTP is __________
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture.
a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Data centric
d) Service oriented
3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
5. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connections between A and B is _______
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
6. FTP server _____________
a) Maintains state information
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer
7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.
a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
9. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is ________
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) Message mode
10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command
a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) PWORD
C------------------>
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
3. Expansion of SMTP is ________
a) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
c) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
4. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
7. Internet mail places each object in _________
a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
9. A session may include ________
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
10. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _________
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
12. User agent does not support this ___________
a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
c) Replying messages
d) Routing messages
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for electronic mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as _____________
a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) STARTTLS
3. SMTP uses which of the following TCP port?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 21
d) 25
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?
a) SMTP
b) Post Office Protocol (POP)
c) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d) FTP
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a) protocol for SMTP security
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) protocol for faster mail transfer
6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) URL
d) Name
7. An SMTP session may not include _______
a) zero SMTP transaction
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) one HTTP transaction
8. SMTP defines _______
a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) message password
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) short mail reception
10. SMTP is not used to deliver messages to ______
a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) user’s word processor
d) user’s email client
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
2. A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
3. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
4. DNS database contains _______
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then _______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned
6. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
d) none of the mentioned
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
9. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
d) none of the mentioned
10. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d) none of the mentioned
1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for __________
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
2. SSH can be used in only _____________
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key
4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________
a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
c) physical layer
d) connection layer
8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates
d) none of the mentioned
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.
a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
d) GCP protocol
10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
2. DHCP is used for ________
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d) None of the mentioned
3. The DHCP server _________
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) none of the mentioned
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
9. What is DHCP snooping?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned
1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
3. Which component is included in IP security?
a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d) All of the mentioned
4. WPA2 is used for security in _______
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) Email
5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called ______
a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______
a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) Wired metropolitan area network
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) WiFi security
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) Local data encryption algorithm
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing
1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?
a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
a) PPTP
b) IPsec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?
a) Only IP
b) Only IPX
c) Only ICMP
d) IP and IPX
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
9. L2F was developed by which company?
a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
1. Storage management comprises of _______________
a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
d) All of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is not a storage device?
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) Hub
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?
a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) MIB
4. Identify the difficulty a SAN administrator does not incur while dealing with diverse vendors.
a) Proprietary management interfaces
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c) No single view
d) Single view
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices?
a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used
6. Effective Storage management does not include __________
a) security
b) backups
c) reporting
d) connection
7. Among the following, identify which task is not involved in Storage Capacity management?
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) Preventing unauthorized access to the storage
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) is _______________
a) standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b) breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single providers
c) builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
d) all of the mentioned
9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is not ________
a) to promote interoperability among the management solution providers
b to act as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide solution to manage various environments
c) to track the operation of the different management solution providers
d) to manage the facility by itself if one of the management solution providers fail
10. SMI-S Standard uses which of the following?
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
1. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
2. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
3. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
4. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
5. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
6. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called _________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
7. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
8. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
9. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
1. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
2. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote host
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
4. What is the correct syntax to be written in the web browser to initiate a Telnet connection to www.sanfoundry.com?
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
5. Telnet is used for _______
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
6. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) character mode
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server _________
a) interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) cli character has to be used
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to __________
a) TCP port number 21
b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 25
2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) client can transfer files using to remote server using NVT
3. All telnet operations are sent as ________
a) 4 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bits
d) 32 bits
4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for _______ Operating system.
a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) ubuntu
5. The decimal code of Interpret as Command (IAC) character is _______
a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
6. Which of the following is true for character mode operation of telnet implementation?
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then sent to the server
d) each character type is aggregated into a line and then sent to the server
7. In which mode of telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line is completed?
a) default mode
c) character mode
c) server mode
d) command mode
8. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
5. Questions & Answers on Transport Layer
1. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?
a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Unreliable
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______
a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
5. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers start with a _________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______
a) sequence number of the byte received previously
b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred to as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________
a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
5. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to that particular server. The process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
7. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
9. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________ respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Low overhead
2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
4. What is the main advantage of UDP?
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
6. What is the header size of a UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________
a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
9. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
10. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure the security and confidentiality of data within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5
3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________
a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) PGP; SSL
6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
7. ESP does not provide ________
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) error control
8. In computer security _______ means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
9. In computer security _______ means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
10. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
6. Questions on Frame Relay
1. Two broad categories of congestion control are
a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) Active loop and Passive loop
2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
3. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______
a) Packet is lost
b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
d) Packet is error-free
4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the sender resends ___________
a) Packet which are not lost
b) Only those packets which are lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
6. Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signaling
d) Backward signaling
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to _______
a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called _______
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches a threshold.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases ____________ until congestion is detected.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Virtual Circuit Network?
a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established during the connection
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in application layer
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the network is part of an international network is called as ______
a) Global address
b) Network address
c) Physical address
d) IP address
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is called _______
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier
4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual circuit network?
a) Setup phase
b) Data transfer phase
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase
5. Steps required in setup process are ___________
a) Setup request and acknowledgement
b) Setup request and setup response
c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
6. During teardown phase, the source, after sending all the frames to destination, sends a _____ to notify termination.
a) teardown response
b) teardown request
c) termination request
d) termination response
7. Delay of the resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is ________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
8. Delay of the resource allocated on demand during data transfer is ________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
9. In virtual circuit network, the number of delay times for setup and teardown respectively are _______
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
d) 2 and 2
10. In data transfer phase, how many columns does the table contain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
1. ATM and frame relay are ________
a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) virtual public networks
2. ATM uses _______________
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing
3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
4. ATM can be used for ________
a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) campus area network
d) networks covering any range
5. An ATM cell has the payload field of __________
a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
6. Frame relay has error detection at the ______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called ______
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
8. Frame relay has _______
a) only physical layer
b) only data link layer
c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used _______
a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) FRAD is used for error recovery
1. Frame Relay is cheaper than other _____
a) LANs
b) WANs
c) MANs
d) Multipoint Networks
2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called _______
a) Voice Over For Relay
b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay
3. There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the ______
a) Lower Level Protocol
b) Highest Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol
d) Lowest Level Protocol
5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such as _______
a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
6. Frame relay provides error detection at the ______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called _______
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
8. Frame relay has only _______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) physical layer and data link layer
d) network layer and data link layer
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used ________
a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) FRAD is used for error recovery
<--------------------C------------------------>
D----------------------->
7. Questions & Answers on TCP/IP Protocol Suite
1. A piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage is called ______
a) url
b) hyperlink
c) plugin
d) extension
2. Dynamic web page ______
a) is same every time whenever it displays
b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
c) both is same every time whenever it displays and generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
d) is different always in a predefined order
3. What is a web browser?
a) a program that can display a web page
b) a program used to view html documents
c) it enables user to access the resources of internet
d) all of the mentioned
4. Common gateway interface is used to _______
a) generate executable files from web content by web server
b) generate web pages
c) stream videos
d) download media files
5. URL stands for ________
a) unique reference label
b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator
d) unique resource locator
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data that is _______
a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web browser while a user is browsing a website
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a user is browsing a website
c) sent from root server to all servers
d) sent from the root server to other root servers
7. Which one of the following is not used to generate dynamic web pages?
a) PHP
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
d) CSS
8. An alternative to JavaScript on windows platform is _______
a) VBScript
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
d) PHP
9. What is document object model (DOM)?
a) convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
b) application programming interface
c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
d) scripting language
10. AJAX stands for _______
a) asynchronous javascript and xml
b) advanced JSP and xml
c) asynchronous JSP and xml
d) advanced javascript and xml
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
5. The data field cannot carry which of the following?
a) TCP segment
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
d) SMTP messages
6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?
a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
d) Protocol field value
7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
d) does not offer error reporting
8. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?
a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
d) all of the mentioned
9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifer
1. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
a) Connectionless
b) Offer reliable service
c) Offer unreliable service
d) Does not offer error reporting
2. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?
a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments
d) All of the mentioned
3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier
4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
d) Sizes
5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________
a) Classless Addressing
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
6. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________
a) Class Network
b) Entity
c) Organization
d) Codes
7. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________
a) Organized
b) Blocked
c) Wasted
d) Communicated
8. Network addresses are a very important concept of ________
a) Routing
b) Mask
c) IP Addressing
d) Classless Addressing
9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?
a) Class E
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class F
1. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4 bytes
b) 128 bits
c) 8 bytes
d) 100 bits
2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
3. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
4. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.
a) broadcast
b) multicast
c) anycast
d) unicast
5. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram
a) Hop limit
b) TTL
c) Next header
d) Type of traffic
7. Dual-stack approach refers to _________
a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks
8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
1. Dual-stack approach refers to _________
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) Implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
4. A link local address of local addresses is used in an _______
a) Isolated router
b) Isolated mask
c) Isolated subnet
d) Isolated net
5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without going into network is called _________
a) Unspecified address
b) Loopback address
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address
6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6 address define its category is called ________
a) Prefix type
b) Postfix type
c) Reserved type
d) Local type
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses that start with eight 0s are called ________
a) Unicast addresses
b) Multicast addresses
c) Any cast addresses
d) Reserved addresses
8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
a) Leading zeros are required
b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros
c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types
9. When was IPv6 launched?
a) June 2, 2012
b) June 4, 2012
c) June 5, 2012
d) June 6, 2012
1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery?
a) Physical layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
d) Application layer
2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes communicate in which of the following methods?
a) Client/Server
b) Source/Destination
c) Message Transfer
d) Peer to Peer
3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport layer are identified by __________
a) Mac address
b) Port number
c) Host number
d) Host address
4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is __________
a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), which of the following ranges is not a part of port number ranges?
a) Well-known ports
b) Registered ports
c) Dynamic ports
d) Static ports
6. The combination of an IP address and port number is called as ________
a) Socket address
b) Port address
c) MAC address
d) Host address
7. Which of the following is false with respect to Connectionless service of transport layer protocol?
a) Packets are not numbered
b) Packets are not delayed
c) No acknowledgement
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence
8. Correct order in the process of Connection-Oriented services is ________
i. Data transfer
ii. Connection release
iii. Connection establishment
a) i-ii-iii
b) iii-ii-i
c) ii-i-iii
d) iii-i-ii
9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at _________
a) Channel
b) Receiver site
c) Sender site
d) Packet
10. The process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to appropriate process based on port number is called as _______
a) Delivery of packets
b) Error correction
c) Multiplexing
d) Demultiplexing
1. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) has been designed to compensate _________
a) Error-reporting
b) Error-correction
c) Host and management queries
d) All of the mentioned
2. Header size of the ICMP message is _________
a) 8-bytes
b) 8-bits
c) 16-bytes
d) 16-bits
3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to ________
a) Destination
b) Source
c) Next router
d) Previous router
4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting message?
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address such as _______
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
c) 11.1
d) 127
6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is discarded and the router or the host sends a ____________ message back to the source host that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
7. The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.
a) error control
b) flow control
c) router control
d) switch control
8. In case of time exceeded error, when the datagram visits a router, the value of time to live field is _________
a) Remains constant
b) Decremented by 2
c) Incremented by 1
d) Decremented by 1
9. Two machines can use the timestamp request and timestamp replay messages to determine the ___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel between them.
a) Half-trip time
b) Round-trip time
c) Travel time for the next router
d) Time to reach the destination/source
10. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive and responding.
a) traceroute
b) shell
c) ping
d) java
11. In windows ____________ can be used to trace the route of the packet from the source to the destination.
a) traceroute
b) tracert
c) ping
d) locater
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of checksum is ___________
a) 10101111 10100011
b) 01010000 01011100
c) 10101111 01011100
d) 01010000 10100011
1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is _________
a) Huge number of systems on the internet
b) Very low number of system on the internet
c) Providing standard address
d) To provide faster internet
2. Which of the following is not a transition strategy?
a) Dual stack
b) Tunneling
c) Conversion
d) Header translation
3. To determine which version to use when sending a packet to a destination, the source host queries which of the following?
a) Dual stack
b) Domain Name Server
c) Header information
d) Transport layer
4. The strategy used when two computers using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the packet must pass through a region that uses IPv4 is ______________
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunneling
5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses IPv4 region is ________
i. IPv6 header
ii. Payload
iii. IPv4 header
a) iii-i-ii
b) iii-ii-i
c) i-ii-iii
d) i-iii-ii
6. ___________ is necessary when the sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand IPv6.
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunneling
7. Header translation uses ___________ to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
a) IP address
b) Physical address
c) Mapped address
d) MAC address
8. Which of the following is not a step in the Header translation procedure?
a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32bits
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier
6. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
8. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address.
a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Any cast
d) Unicast
10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
1. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnetmask?
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
4. The combination of _________ and __________ is often termed the local address of the local portion of the IP address.
a) Network number and host number
b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting
c) Variable length subnetting
d) Dynamic length subnetting
6. State whether true or false.
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances upto 1000 stations connected.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
c) FDDR
d) FOTR
8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX
d) All of the mentioned
9. _________ is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
d) Gigabyte Ethernet
10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
a) S/NET
b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
1. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?
i. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
ii. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
iii. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
iv. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
v. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i and v only
2. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
i. 172.16.1.100
ii. 172.16.1.198
iii. 172.16.2.255
iv. 172.16.3.0
a) i only
b) ii and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) ii only
3. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?
i. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
ii. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
iii. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
iv. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
a) i and iii
b) ii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
5. You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
9. What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?
a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
8. Questions on Networking
1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net?
a) Ethernet 802.3
b) Ethernet 802.2
c) Ethernet II
d) Ethernet SNAP
2. Consider a situation in which you are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statement is not true?
a) The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long
b) The node address is always administratively assigned
c) The node address is usually the MAC address
d) If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
a) IPX
b) NCP
c) SPX
d) NetBIOS
5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
a) NLSP
b) RIP
c) SAP
d) NCP
6. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the “debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary
d) Debug IP IGRP events
7. What does the following series of commands “Router IGRP 71 network” accomplish?
10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71
c) It disables RIP
d) It disables all routing protocols
8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
9. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
encapsulation sap
d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2” command accomplish?
a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths
b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
11. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.
a) False
b) True
13. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?
a) Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds
b) Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that
c) SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers
d) Cisco routers filter out all SAPs
14. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing tables every _________ seconds.
a) 60
b) 90
c) 10
d) 30
15. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the correct metrics.
a) Ticks & Hops
b) Hops & Loops
c) Loops & Counts
d) Counts & Ticks
1. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds
c) Every 90 seconds
d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically
3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?
a) Show IP route
b) Debug IP rip
c) Show protocols
d) Debug IP route
4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table?
a) The updated information will be added to the existing routing table Debug IP rip
b) The update will be ignored and no further action will occur Debug IP route
c) The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will exchange routing updates to reach convergence
5. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route
c) The route is inaccessible
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
6. Default administrative distance of a static route is ________
a) 0
b) 90
c) 100
d) 1
7. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?
a) IEGRP
b) RIP
c) ICMP
d) IP
8. _________ is the default administrative distance of RIP.
a) 0
b) 90
c) 120
d) 130
9. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocol?
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same autonomous system
10. Where should we use default routing?
a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the network
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
d) Maximum five exit paths out of the network
1. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
2. What is route poisoning?
a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity
3. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?
a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1
4. Which of the situations might not require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
b) When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c) When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors
5. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP
6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains?
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
d) Not possible to use two routers
7. What does administrative distance rank?
a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information
c) Router reliability
d) Best paths
8. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
d) EIGRP
9. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?
a) IS-IS
b) IGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
10. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d) decrypted message
2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by __________
a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) dsa algorithm
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by __________
a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
d) quadratic ciphers
5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) byte cipher
6. Cryptanalysis is used __________
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) to make new ciphers
7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TLS)
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol
8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided by _______
a) A5/2 cipher
b) b5/4 cipher
c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
9. ElGamal encryption system is __________
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
c) not an encryption algorithm
d) block cipher method
10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns _________
a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit string
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string
d) variable sized byte string
1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by __________
a) Uniform resource identifier
b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
d) Union resource locator
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) User datagram protocol
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Border gateway protocol
d) Domain host control protocol
5. In HTTP pipelining __________
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
6. FTP server listens for connection on which port number?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
7. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol
b) User datagram protocol
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on __________
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
1. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?
a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
b) Public Socket accept ()
c) Public synchronized void close ()
d) Public void connect ()
2.Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and binds it with the given Port Number?
a) Datagram Socket(int port)
b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
c) Datagram Socket()
d) Datagram Socket(int address)
3. The client in socket programming must know which information?
a) IP address of Server
b) Port number
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
d) Only its own IP address
4. The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource that is referred by the URL.
a) True
b) False
5. Datagram is basically just a piece of information but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time.
a) True
b) False
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of ___________
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
8. The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes any un-cleared buffers in the memory.
a) True
b) False
9. Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?
a) Datagram Socket
b) Datagram Packet
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
d) Server Socket
10. In Inet Address class, which method returns the host name of the IP Address?
a) Public String get Hostname()
b) Public String getHostAddress()
c) Public static InetAddress get Localhost()
d) Public getByName()
1. Cookies were originally designed for ____________
a) Client side programming
b) Server side programming
c) Both Client side programming and Server side programming
d) Socket programming
2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which property?
a) cookie
b) cookies
c) manipulate
d) manipulate cookie
3. Which of the following explains Cookies nature?
a) Non Volatile
b) Volatile
c) Intransient
d) Transient
4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a cookie?
a) Higher-age
b) Increase-age
c) Max-age
d) Lifetime
5. Which of the following defines the Cookie visibility?
a) Document Path
b) LocalStorage
c) SessionStorage
d) All of the mentioned
6. Which of the following can be used to configure the scope of the Cookie visibility?
a) Path
b) Domain
c) Both Path and Domain
d) Server
7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to local Storage?
a) /
b) %
c) *
d) #
8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
a) Bool
b) Secure
c) Lookup
d) Domain
9. Which of the following function is used as a consequence of not including semicolons, Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
a) EncodeURIComponent()
b) EncodeURI()
c) EncodeComponent()
d) Encode()
10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie?
a) 2 KB
b) 1 KB
c) 4 KB
d) 3 KB
1. What does REST stand for?
a) Represent State Transfer
b) Representational State Transfer
c) Representing State Transfer
d) Representation State Transfer
2. Which of the following protocol is used by Restful web services as a medium of communication between client and server?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Gopher
d) TELNET
3. Which of the following is not a good practice to create a standard URI for a web service?
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility
b) Use HTTP Verb
c) Using spaces for long resource names
d) Use lowercase letters
4. Which of the following HTTP methods should be idempotent in nature?
a) OPTIONS
b) DELETE
c) POST
d) HEAD
5. Which of the following directive of Cache Control Header of HTTP response indicates that resource is cachable by only client and server?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Nocache/nostore
d) Maxage
6. Which of the following HTTP Status code means CREATED, when a resource is successful created using POST or PUT request?
a) 200
b) 201
c) 204
d) 304
7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API is used to annotate a method used to create resource?
a) @Path
b) @GET
c) @PUT
d) @POST
8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix parameter in path?
a) @PathParam
b) @QueryParam
c) @MatrixParam
d) @HeaderParam
9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply provides access to resources and REST client accesses and presents the resources.
a) False
b) True
10. POST operation should be idempotent.
a) True
b) False
1. The term that is used to place packet in its route to its destination is called __________
a) Delayed
b) Urgent
c) Forwarding
d) Delivering
2. A second technique to reduce routing table and simplify searching process is called _________
a) Network-Specific Method
b) Network-Specific Motion
c) Network-Specific Maintaining
d) Network-Specific Membership
3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of a _________
a) Revolving table
b) Rotating Table
c) Routing Table
d) Re-allocate table
4. Several techniques can make size of routing table manageable and also handle issues such as __________
a) Maturity
b) Error reporting
c) Tunneling
d) Security
5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such as checking route or providing _____
a) Network Measures
b) Security Measures
c) Routing Measures
d) Delivery Measures
6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between three nodes, stability cannot be ________
a) Stable
b) Reversed
c) Guaranteed
d) Forward
7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a shortest path tree from a ________
a) Graph
b) Tree
c) Network
d) Link
8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used to broadcast packets but it creates ________
a) Gaps
b) Loops
c) Holes
d) Links
9. RPF stands for __________
a) Reverse Path Forwarding
b) Reverse Path Failure
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
d) Reverse Protocol Failure
10. LSP stands for __________
a) Link Stable Packet
b) Link State Packet
c) Link State Protocol
d) Link State Path
1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
3. Network layer firewall works as a ________
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) signal filter
d) content filter
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories called ____________
a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) network firewall and data firewall
5. WPA2 is used for security in _______
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) e-mail
6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called ______
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______
a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
d) wired metropolitan area network
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
d) wifi security
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) internet data encryption algorithm
d) local data encryption algorithm
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing
<---------------------D---------------------->
M--------------------->
9. Questions & Answers on Network Layer
1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________
Link state protocol
Error-correction protocol
Routing information protocol
Border gateway protocol
2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________
Bellman-ford algorithm
Routing information protocol
Dijkstra’s algorithm
Distance vector routing
3. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?
Support for fixed-length subnetting by including the subnet mask in the routing message
More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535
Use of designated router
Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination
4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?
Link state protocol
Error-correction protocol
Routing information protocol
Hello protocol
5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?
Hello
Link-state request
Link-state response
Link-state ACK
6. What is the correct order of the operations of OSPF?
i – Hello packets
ii – Propagation of link-state information and building of routing tables
iii – Establishing adjacencies and synchronization of database
i-ii-iii
i-iii-ii
iii-ii-i
ii-i-iii
7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?
Type
Area ID
Authentication type
Checksum
8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if there are more database descriptor packets in the flow, ‘M’ field is set to ____________
1
0
more
-1
9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router is master?
M
MS
I
Options
10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?
LSA header
MS
Database descriptor sequence number
Options
1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
Ignores the LSA
Adds it to the database
Sends newer LSU update to source router
Floods the LSA to the other routers
2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA?
Ignores the LSA
Adds it to the database
Sends newer LSU update to source router
Floods the LSA to the other routers
3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the router do with the LSA?
ignores the LSA
adds it to the database
sends newer LSU update to source router
floods the LSA to the other routers
4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
30 seconds
1 minute
30 minutes
1 hour
5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
True
False
6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________
Topology table
Routing table
Neighbor table
Adjacency table
7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?
89
86
20
76
8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
LSU
LSR
DBD
Query
9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
224.0.0.5
224.0.0.6
224.0.0.7
224.0.0.8
10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers.
True
False
11. DBD packets are involved during which two states?
Exstart and exchange
Loading and Two-way
Init and Full
Down and Loading
12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
10 seconds
30 seconds
30 minutes
1 hour
13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?
Packet length
Router ID
Authentication type
Maxage time
14. Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration?
“[Network mask] area [area-id]” and “Router ospf [process-id]”
“[Wildcard-mask] area [area-id]” and “[Network mask] area [area-id]”
Only “Router ospf [process-id]”
“[Wildcard-mask] area [area-id]” and “Router ospf [process-id]”
15. Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?
Show ip ospf interface
Show ip ospf
Show ip route
Show ip ospf neighbor
1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?
Network layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Transport layer
2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as ________
Switches
Segments
Datagrams
Data-packets
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to _________
Connection oriented networks
Connection less networks
Telephone networks
Internetwork
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of ________
Switch table
Segments table
Datagram table
Routing table
5. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are ___________
Source and Destination address
Destination address and Output port
Source address and Output port
Input port and Output port
6. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram network during the entire journey of the packet?
Destination address
Source address
Checksum
Padding
7. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
All of the mentioned
8. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the given transmission line becomes available.
Stack
Queue
Hash
Routing table
9. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of the block
Remains same
Decreases
Increases
Is not proportional
10. Which of the following is false with respect to the datagram networks?
Number of flows of packets are not limited
Packets may not be in order at the destination
Path is not reserved
Delay is the same for all packets in a flow
1. Network layer firewall works as a __________
Frame filter
Packet filter
Content filter
Virus filter
2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________
State full firewall and stateless firewall
Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
Frame firewall and packet firewall
Network layer firewall and session layer firewall
3. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is also known as __________
Chock point
Meeting point
Firewall point
Secure point
4. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?
Packet Filtering Firewall
Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
Screen Host Firewall
Dual Host Firewall
5. A proxy firewall filters at _________
Physical layer
Data link layer
Network layer
Application layer
6. A packet filter firewall filters at __________
Physical layer
Data link layer
Network layer or Transport layer
Application layer
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?
You can control where traffic goes in three networks
You can do stateful packet filtering
You can do load balancing
Improved network performance
8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into packets?
The source routing feature
The number in the header’s identification field
The destination IP address
The header checksum field in the packet header
9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.
Routing table
Bridging table
State table
Connection table
10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the network that it protects.
Robust
Expansive
Fast
Scalable
1. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of _________
Documents
Components
Servers
Entities
2. Performance management is closely related to _________
Proactive Fault Management
Fault management
Reactive Fault Management
Preventive Fault Management
3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and __________
Documentation
Information
Servers
Entity
4. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined policy is called ___________
Fault Management
Secured Management
Active Management
Security Management
5. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ______________
Reactive Fault Management
Reconfigured Fault Management
Accounting Management
Security Management
6. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is __________
Transmission path
Virtual path
Virtual circuit
Transmission circuit
7. Which of the following networks supports pipelining effect?
Circuit-switched networks
Message-switched networks
Packet-switched networks
Stream-switched networks
8. In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to the _________
IP Server
Domain
Network
Data
9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________
SMTP
UDP
SNMP
TCP/IP
10. A network management system can be divided into ___________
three categories
five broad categories
seven broad categories
ten broad categories
1. Ping can _________
Measure round-trip time
Report packet loss
Report latency
All of the mentioned
2. Ping sweep is a part of _________
Traceroute
Nmap
Route
Ipconfig
3. ICMP is used in _________
Ping
Traceroute
Ifconfig
Both Ping & Traceroute
4. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.
route
Ipconfig
Ifconfig
Traceroute
5. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is ___________
route
Ipconfig
Ifconfig
Traceroute
6. Which of the following is not related to ipconfig in Microsoft Windows?
Display all current TCP/IP network configuration values
Modify DHCP settings
Modify DNS settings
Trace the routers in the path to destination
7. __________ allows checking if a domain is available for registration.
Domain Check
Domain Dossier
Domain Lookup
Domain registers
8. Choose the wrong statement from the following.
Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
Ping is used to check connectivity
Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of route
Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface parameters
1. Ethernet frame consists of ____________
MAC address
IP address
Default mask
Network address
2. What is start frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?
10101010
10101011
00000000
11111111
3. MAC address is of ___________
24 bits
36 bits
42 bits
48 bits
4. What is autonegotiation?
a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission parameters
a security algorithm
a routing algorithm
encryption algorithm
5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as ___________
pure ethernet
ethernet over SDH
ethernet over MPLS
all of the mentioned
6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for __________
encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
encapsulating ethernet frame inside PPP frames
for security of ethernet frames
for security of PPP frames
7. High speed ethernet works on _________
coaxial cable
twisted pair cable
optical fiber
unshielded twisted pair cable
8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is __________
1000 bytes
1200 bytes
1300 bytes
1500 bytes
9. What is the interframe gap?
idle time between frames
idle time between frame bits
idle time between packets
idle time between network
10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called _______
short frame
runt frame
mini frame
man frame
10. Questions on Wireless LAN’s, Electronic Mail and File Transfer
1. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
wireless devices itself
both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself
all the nodes in the network
2. In wireless ad-hoc network _________
access point is not required
access point is must
nodes are not required
all nodes are access points
3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
CDMA
CSMA/CA
ALOHA
CSMA/CD
4. In wireless distribution system __________
multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
there is no access point
only one access point exists
access points are not required
5. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______
infrastructure mode
ad-hoc mode
both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
WDS mode
6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________
connected basic service sets
all stations
all access points
connected access points
7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
time division multiplexing
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
space division multiplexing
channel division multiplexing
8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?
collision detection
acknowledgement of data frames
multi-mode data transmission
connection to wired networks
9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
security algorithm for ethernet
security algorithm for wireless networks
security algorithm for usb communication
security algorithm for emails
10. What is WPA?
wi-fi protected access
wired protected access
wired process access
wi-fi process access
1. What is internet?
a single network
a vast collection of different networks
interconnection of local area networks
interconnection of wide area networks
2. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a _________
internet architecture board
internet society
internet service provider
different computer
3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by _______
leased line
digital subscriber line
digital signal line
digital leased line
4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by __________
internet exchange point
subscriber end point
isp end point
internet end point
5. Which of the following protocols is used in the internet?
HTTP
DHCP
DNS
DNS, HTTP and DNS
6. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
32 bits
64 bits
128 bits
265 bits
7. Internet works on _______
packet switching
circuit switching
both packet switching and circuit switching
data switching
8. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
remote procedure call
internet relay chat
resource reservation protocol
local procedure call
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?
DHCP
IP
RPC
RSVP
10. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
ethernet
digital subscriber line
fiber distributed data interface
packet switching
1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________
scatternet
micronet
mininet
multinet
2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.
63
127
255
511
3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
local area network
personal area network
metropolitan area network
wide area network
4. Bluetooth uses __________
frequency hopping spread spectrum
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
time division multiplexing
channel division multiplexing
5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called _________
bluemaking
bluesnarfing
bluestring
bluescoping
6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?
a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
a bluetooth profile for streaming video
a bluetooth profile for security
a bluetooth profile for file management
7. In a piconet, one master device ________
can not be slave
can be slave in another piconet
can be slave in the same piconet
can be master in another piconet
8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
2.4 GHz ISM
2.5 GHz ISM
2.6 GHz ISM
2.7 GHz ISM
9. Bluetooth supports _______
point-to-point connections
point-to-multipoint connection
both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
multipoint to point connection
10. A scatternet can have maximum __________
10 piconets
20 piconets
30 piconets
40 piconets
1. WiMAX stands for ___________
wireless maximum communication
worldwide interoperability for microwave access
worldwide international standard for microwave access
wireless internet maximum communication
2. WiMAX provides ________
simplex communication
half duplex communication
full duplex communication
no communication
3. WiMAX uses the _________
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
time division multiplexing
space division multiplexing
channel division multiplexing
4. Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?
binary phase shift keying modulation
quadrature phase shift keying modulation
quadrature amplitude modulation
all of the mentioned
5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between ___________
higher transport layers and physical layer
application layer and network layer
data link layer and network layer
session layer and application layer
6. For encryption, WiMAX supports _______
advanced encryption standard
triple data encryption standard
advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard
double data encryption standard
7. WiMAX provides _______
VoIP services
IPTV services
Both VoIP and IPTV services
no IPTV services
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as _________
subscriber stations
base stations
gateway
switch stations
9. WiMAX is mostly used for __________
local area network
metropolitan area network
personal area network
wide area network
10. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
2.3 GHz
2.4 GHz
2.5 GHz
3.5 GHz
1. SONET stands for ___________
synchronous optical network
synchronous operational network
stream optical network
shell operational network
2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling has the data rate of _________
51.84 Mbps
155.52 Mbps
2488.320 Mbps
622.080 Mbps
3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for the movement of a signal _________
from its optical source to its optical destination
across a physical line
across a physical section
back to its optical source
4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to the __________ of OSI model.
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
transport layer
5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal STS-n is composed of __________
2000 frames
4000 frames
8000 frames
16000 frames
6. Which one of the following is not true about SONET?
frames of lower rate can be synchronously time-division multiplexed into a higher-rate frame
multiplexing is synchronous TDM
all clocks in the network are locked to a master clock
STS-1 provides the data rate of 622.080Mbps
7. A linear SONET network can be ________
point-to-point
multi-point
both point-to-point and multi-point
single point
8. Automatic protection switching in linear network is defined at the _______
line layer
section layer
photonic layer
path layer
9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a network with __________
one ring
two rings
three rings
four rings
10. What is SDH?
sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T
synchronous digital hierarchy
sdh stands for synchronous digital hierarchy and is a similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T
none of the mentioned
1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly used in _________
streaming media
video teleconference
television services
all of the mentioned
2. RTP is used to ________
carry the media stream
monitor transmission statistics of streams
monitor quality of service of streams
secure the stream
3. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________
media stream
expansion
media modification
security
4. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?
RTP
RTCP
RPC
RTCT
5. An RTP session is established for ____________
each media stream
all media streams
some predefined number of media streams
no media stream
6. RTP can use __________
unprivileged UDP ports
stream control transmission protocol
datagram congestion control protocol
all of the mentioned
7. Which one of the following multimedia formats can not be supported by RTP?
MPEG-4
MJPEG
MPEG
TXT
8. An RTP header has a minimum size of _________
12 bytes
16 bytes
24 bytes
32 bytes
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants
RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants
RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods
RTCP handles the actual data delivery
10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that provides cryptographic services for the transfer of payload data?
SRTP
RTCP
RCP
RTCT
1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the _________
server
client
client after the sever
a third party
2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the client is blocked ________
unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
unless the call processing is complete
for the complete duration of the connection
unless the server is disconnected
3. A remote procedure call is _______
inter-process communication
a single process
a single thread
a single stream
4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
its own address space
another address space
both its own address space and another address space
applications address space
5. RPC works between two processes. These processes must be ____________
on the same computer
on different computers connected with a network
on the same computer and also on different computers connected with a network
on none of the computers
6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by _________
program number
version number
procedure number
all of the mentioned
7. An RPC application requires _________
specific protocol for client server communication
a client program
a server program
all of the mentioned
8. RPC is used to _________
establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries
retrieve information by calling a query
establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and retrieve information by calling a query
to secure the client
9. RPC is a _________
synchronous operation
asynchronous operation
time independent operation
channel specific operation
10. The local operating system on the server machine passes the incoming packets to the ___________
server stub
client stub
client operating system
client process
11. Questions & Answers on Point to Point Protocol & Error Detection
1. Which of the following is an advantage of anomaly detection?
Rules are easy to define
Custom protocols can be easily analyzed
The engine can scale as the rule set grows
Malicious activity that falls within normal usage patterns is detected
2. A false positive can be defined as ________
An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior
An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network
The lack of an alert for nefarious activity
Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network
3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation to the firewall is the most productive placement?
Inside the firewall
Outside the firewall
Both inside and outside the firewall
Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall.
4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
To help reduce false positives in a signature-based IDS
To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system
To enhance the accuracy of a traditional honeypot
5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial IDSes generate signatures?
Application layer and Network layer
Network layer and Session Layer
Transport layer and Application layer
Transport layer and Network layer
6. IDS follows a two-step process consisting of a passive component and an active component. Which of the following is part of the active component?
Inspection of password files to detect inadvisable passwords
Mechanisms put in place to reenact known methods of attack and record system responses
Inspection of system to detect policy violations
Inspection of configuration files to detect inadvisable settings
7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
An electronic signature used to authenticate the identity of a user on the network
Attack-definition file
It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior
It is used to authorize the users on a network
8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which two layers?
Application layer and Transport layer
Network layer and Application layer
Session layer and Transport layer
Application layer and Session layer
9. Which of the following is used to provide a baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
Crossover error rate
False negative rate
False positive rate
Bit error rate
10. Which of the following is true of signature-based IDSes?
They alert administrators to deviations from “normal” traffic behavior
They identify previously unknown attacks
The technology is mature and reliable enough to use on production networks
They scan network traffic or packets to identify matches with attack-definition files
1. Both HDLC and PPP are Data link layer protocols.
True
False
2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network?
LCP
NCP
Both LCP and NCP
TCP
3. The PPP protocol _________
Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers
Is one of the protocols for making an Internet connection over a phone line
Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers and making an Internet connection over a phone line
Is used for sharing bandwidth
4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.
Link
Network
Transport
Application
5. PPP consists of ________components
Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)
Three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)
Two (a link control protocol, Simple Network Control protocol)
One (Simple Network Control protocol)
6. The PPP encapsulation ____________
Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
Requires framing to indicate the beginning and end of the encapsulation
Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
Provides interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network
7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for ____________
Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
Establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols
Testing the different network-layer protocols
Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) ____________
Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide a dynamic
Are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide transparent
The same as NFS
9. Choose the correct statement from the following.
PPP can terminate the link at any time
PPP can terminate the link only during the link establishment phase
PPP can terminate the link during the authentication phase
PPP can terminate the link during the callback control phase
10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this phase. During the ______ phase, the LCP automata will be in INITIAL or STARTING states.
Link-termination phase
Link establishment phase
Authentication phase
Link dead phase
1. EIGRP is a routing protocol design by Cisco.
True
False
2. EIGRP metric is ________
K-values
Bandwidth only
Hop Count
Delay only
3. EIGRP can support ____________
VLSM/subnetting
Auto summary
Unequal cast load balancing
All of the mentioned
4. EIGRP sends a hello message after every ___________ seconds.
5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)
5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
15s
180s
5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is ______
90
170
110
91
6. The EIGRP metric values include:
Delay
Bandwidth
MTU
All of the mentioned
7. For default gateway, which of following commands will you use on a Cisco router?
IP default network
IP default gateway
IP default route
Default network
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is _______
90
170
110
100
9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for finding shortest path.
SPF
DUAL
Linkstat
Djikstra’s
10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor, where as backup path is known as __________
Feasible successor
Back-up route
Default route
There is no backup route in EIGRP
1. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
Communication server
Print server
File server
Network
2. STP stands for _________
Shielded twisted pair cable
Spanning tree protocol
Static transport protocol
Shielded two power cable
3. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is an example of ___________
LAN intrinsic software
LAN aware software
Groupware
LAN ignorant software
4. The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data etc.
Configuration management
Security management
Performance management
Recovery management
5. What is the max cable length of STP?
100 ft
200 ft
100 m
200 m
6. What is the max data transfer rate of STP?
10 mbps
100 mbps
1000 mbps
10000 mbps
7. Which connector does STP use?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
RJ-69
8. What is the central device in star topology?
STP server
Hub/switch
PDC
Router
9. What is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cable?
10 mbps
100 mbps
1000 mbps
10000 mbps
10. Which of the following architecture uses CSMA/CD access method?
ARC net
Ethernet
Router
STP server
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